Elder is on thiamine, trazedone, mirtazapine, magnesium, calcium, rappamune. Has ckd3, copd, liver transplant x2 cirrhosis, athosclerosis, DVt, c-diff, SBO history, etc. elder signed new poa putting primary as secondary (unknown to him at the time),removing 2nd daughter and appointing 3rd daughter as primary. 1st and second daughter been hcp for over 10 years. 3rd daughter taking adv of fathers condition. That's just some background. My question is a neiropsych exam was completed after change in hcp so I can't see results. Seniorcare is guarded in speaking. They tell me my father can make decisions when guided by his doctor. Yet daughter 3 sighns MOLST (she says dnr but dad tells doctor full code). Signs hospital admittance papers too as personal reoresentTive (she does have poa...I did too until she tricked him into believing I was trying to have him declared incompetent). Dad is noted as "senior at risk". His diagnosis are depressive disorder moderate, generalized anxiety disorder, alcohol dependent, not otherwise specified. Why won't anyone diagnose memory issues? Why were results of test so general(may change as not been paid yet), what would indicate that he can make decision with guidance of doctor? That assumes doctor has his best interest, etc Dad also has history of influence.